N10-009 Exam Questions Get Updated [2024] with Correct Answers
Practice N10-009 Questions With Certification guide Q&A from Training Expert Prep4SureReview
CompTIA N10-009 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 44
A network administrator is configuring a wireless network with an ESSID. Which of the following is a user benefit of ESSID compared to SSID?
- A. Stronger wireless connection
- B. Advanced security
- C. Roaming between access points
- D. Increased throughput
Answer: C
Explanation:
An Extended Service Set Identifier (ESSID) allows multiple access points to share the same SSID, enabling seamless roaming for users. This means that users can move between different access points within the same ESSID without losing connection or having to reauthenticate. This provides a better user experience, especially in large environments such as office buildings or campuses.References:CompTIA Network+ study materials.
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following is a characteristic of the application layer?
- A. It encrypts data in transit.
- B. It relies upon other layers for packet delivery.
OB. It checks independently for packet loss. - C. It performs address translation.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Introduction to OSI Model:
The OSI model is a conceptual framework used to understand network interactions in seven layers: Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application.
Application Layer:
The application layer (Layer 7) is the topmost layer in the OSI model. It provides network services directly to end-user applications. This layer facilitates communication between software applications and lower layers of the network protocol stack.
Reliance on Other Layers:
The application layer relies on the transport layer (Layer 4) for data transfer across the network. The transport layer ensures reliable data delivery through protocols like TCP and UDP.
The network layer (Layer 3) is responsible for routing packets to their destination.
The data link layer (Layer 2) handles node-to-node data transfer and error detection.
The physical layer (Layer 1) deals with the physical connection between devices.
Explanation of the Options:
A . It relies upon other layers for packet delivery: This is correct. The application layer depends on the lower layers (transport, network, data link, and physical) for the actual delivery of data packets.
B . It checks independently for packet loss: This is incorrect. Packet loss detection is typically handled by the transport layer (e.g., TCP).
C . It encrypts data in transit: This is incorrect. Encryption is typically handled by the presentation layer or at the transport layer (e.g., TLS/SSL).
D . It performs address translation: This is incorrect. Address translation is performed by the network layer (e.g., NAT).
Conclusion:
The application layer's primary role is to interface with the end-user applications and ensure that data is correctly presented to the user. It relies on the underlying layers to manage the actual data transport and delivery processes.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ guide covering the OSI model and the specific roles and functions of each layer (see page Ref 10fHow to Use Cisco Packet Tracer).
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following most likely determines the size of a rack for installation? (Select two).
- A. Cooling fan speed
- B. Server height
- C. Switch depth
- D. Hard drive size
- E. Outlet amperage
- F. KVM size
Answer: C
Explanation:
Understanding Rack Size Determination:
The size of a rack for installation is determined by the dimensions of the equipment to be housed in it, primarily focusing on the depth and height of the devices.
Switch Depth:
Depth of Equipment: The depth of network switches and other rack-mounted devices directly influences the depth of the rack. If the equipment is deeper, a deeper rack is required to accommodate it.
Industry Standards: Most racks come in standard depths, but it is essential to match the depth of the rack to the deepest piece of equipment to ensure proper fit and airflow.
Server Height:
Height of Equipment: The height of servers and other devices is measured in rack units (U), where 1U equals 1.75 inches. The total height of all equipment determines the overall height requirement of the rack.
Rack Units: A rack's height is typically described in terms of the number of rack units it can accommodate, such as 42U, 48U, etc.
Why Other Options are Less Relevant:
KVM Size: While important for management, KVM (Keyboard, Video, Mouse) switches do not typically determine rack size.
Hard Drive Size: Individual hard drives are installed within servers or storage devices, not directly influencing rack dimensions.
Cooling Fan Speed: Fan speed affects cooling but not the physical size of the rack.
Outlet Amperage: Power requirements do not determine rack dimensions but rather the electrical infrastructure supporting the rack.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on rack installation and equipment sizing.
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which of the following is the most secure way to provide site-to-site connectivity?
- A. IPsec
- B. IKE
- C. GRE
- D. VXLAN
Answer: A
Explanation:
IPsec (Internet Protocol Security) is the most secure way to provide site-to-site connectivity. It provides robust security services, such as data integrity, authentication, and encryption, ensuring that data sent across the network is protected from interception and tampering. Unlike other options, IPsec operates at the network layer and can secure all traffic that crosses the IP network, making it the most comprehensive and secure choice for site-to-site VPNs.References:CompTIA Network+ study materials and NIST Special Publication
800-77.
NEW QUESTION # 48
A network engineer performed a migration to a new mail server. The engineer changed the MX record, verified the change was accurate, and confirmed the new mail server was reachable via the IP address in the A record. However, users are not receiving email. Which of the following should the engineer have done to prevent the issue from occurring?
- A. Perform a DNS zone transfer prior to the MX record change.
- B. Reduce the TTL record prior to the MX record change.
- C. Change the email client configuration to match the MX record.
- D. Update the NS record to reflect the IP address change.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding TTL (Time to Live):
TTL is a value in a DNS record that tells how long that record should be cached by DNS servers and clients. A higher TTL value means that the record will be cached longer, reducing the load on the DNS server but delaying the propagation of changes.
Impact of TTL on DNS Changes:
When an MX record change is made, it may take time for the change to propagate across all DNS servers due to the TTL setting. If the TTL is high, old DNS information might still be cached, leading to email being directed to the old server.
Best Practice Before Making DNS Changes:
To ensure that changes to DNS records propagate quickly, it is recommended to reduce the TTL value to a lower value (such as 300 seconds or 5 minutes) well in advance of making the changes. This ensures that any cached records will expire quickly, and the new records will be used sooner.
Verification of DNS Changes:
After reducing the TTL and making the change to the MX record, it is important to verify the propagation using tools like dig or nslookup.
Comparison with Other Options:
Change the email client configuration to match the MX record: Email clients generally do not need to match the MX record directly; they usually connect to a specific mail server specified in their settings.
Perform a DNS zone transfer prior to the MX record change: DNS zone transfers are used to replicate DNS records between DNS servers, but they are not related to the propagation of individual record changes.
Update the NS record to reflect the IP address change: NS records specify the DNS servers for a domain and are not related to MX record changes.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ study materials and DNS best practices.
NEW QUESTION # 49
SIMULATION
A network administrator has been tasked with configuring a network for a new corporate office. The office consists of two buildings, separated by 50 feet with no physical connectivity. The configuration must meet the following requirements:
. Devices in both buildings should be
able to access the Internet.
. Security insists that all Internet traffic
be inspected before entering the
network.
. Desktops should not see traffic
destined for other devices.
INSTRUCTIONS
Select the appropriate network device for each location. If applicable, click on the magnifying glass next to any device which may require configuration updates and make any necessary changes.
Not all devices will be used, but all locations should be filled.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the answer and solution below
Explanation:
Devices in both buildings should be able to access the Internet.
Security insists that all Internet traffic be inspected before entering the network.
Desktops should not see traffic destined for other devices.
Here is the corrected layout with explanation:
Building A:
Switch: Correctly placed to connect all desktops.
Firewall: Correctly placed to inspect all incoming and outgoing traffic.
Building B:
Switch: Not needed. Instead, place a Wireless Access Point (WAP) to provide wireless connectivity for laptops and mobile devices.
Between Buildings:
Wireless Range Extender: Correctly placed to provide connectivity between the buildings wirelessly.
Connection to the Internet:
Router: Correctly placed to connect to the Internet and route traffic between the buildings and the Internet.
Firewall: The firewall should be placed between the router and the internal network to inspect all traffic before it enters the network.
Corrected Setup:
Top-left (Building A): Switch
Bottom-left (Building A): Firewall (inspect traffic before it enters the network) Top-middle (Internet connection): Router Bottom-middle (between buildings): Wireless Range Extender Top-right (Building B): Wireless Access Point (WAP) In this corrected setup, the WAP in Building B will connect wirelessly to the Wireless Range Extender, which is connected to the Router. The Router is connected to the Firewall to ensure all traffic is inspected before it enters the network.
Configuration for Wireless Range Extender:
SSID: CORP
Security Settings: WPA2 or WPA2 - Enterprise
Key or Passphrase: [Enter a strong passphrase]
Mode: [Set based on your network plan]
Channel: [Set based on your network plan]
Speed: Auto
Duplex: Auto
With these settings, both buildings will have secure access to the Internet, and all traffic will be inspected by the firewall before entering the network. Desktops and other devices will not see traffic intended for others, maintaining the required security and privacy.
To configure the wireless range extender for security, follow these steps:
SSID (Service Set Identifier):
Ensure the SSID is set to "CORP" as shown in the exhibit.
Security Settings:
WPA2 or WPA2 - Enterprise: Choose one of these options for stronger security. WPA2-Enterprise provides more robust security with centralized authentication, which is ideal for a corporate environment.
Key or Passphrase:
If you select WPA2, enter a strong passphrase in the "Key or Passphrase" field.
If you select WPA2 - Enterprise, you will need to configure additional settings for authentication servers, such as RADIUS, which is not shown in the exhibit.
Wireless Mode and Channel:
Set the appropriate mode and channel based on your network design and the environment to avoid interference. These settings are not specified in the exhibit, so set them according to your network plan.
Wired Speed and Duplex:
Set the speed to "Auto" unless you have specific requirements for 100 or 1000 Mbps.
Set the duplex to "Auto" unless you need to specify half or full duplex based on your network equipment.
Save Configuration:
After making the necessary changes, click the "Save" button to apply the settings.
Here is how the configuration should look after adjustments:
SSID: CORP
Security Settings: WPA2 or WPA2 - Enterprise
Key or Passphrase: [Enter a strong passphrase]
Mode: [Set based on your network plan]
Channel: [Set based on your network plan]
Speed: Auto
Duplex: Auto
Once these settings are configured, your wireless range extender will provide secure connectivity for devices in both buildings.
Firewall setting to to ensure complete compliance with the requirements and best security practices, consider the following adjustments and additions:
DNS Rule: This rule allows DNS traffic from the internal network to any destination, which is fine.
HTTPS Outbound: This rule allows HTTPS traffic from the internal network (assuming 192.169.0.1/24 is a typo and should be 192.168.0.1/24) to any destination, which is also good for secure web browsing.
Management: This rule allows SSH access to the firewall for management purposes, which is necessary for administrative tasks.
HTTPS Inbound: This rule denies inbound HTTPS traffic to the internal network, which is good unless you have a web server that needs to be accessible from the internet.
HTTP Inbound: This rule denies inbound HTTP traffic to the internal network, which is correct for security purposes.
Suggested Additional Settings:
Permit General Outbound Traffic: Allow general outbound traffic for web access, email, etc.
Block All Other Traffic: Ensure that all other traffic is blocked to prevent unauthorized access.
Firewall Configuration Adjustments:
Correct the Network Typo:
Ensure that the subnet 192.169.0.1/24 is corrected to 192.168.0.1/24.
Permit General Outbound Traffic:
Rule Name: General Outbound
Source: 192.168.0.1/24
Destination: ANY
Service: ANY
Action: PERMIT
Deny All Other Traffic:
Rule Name: Block All
Source: ANY
Destination: ANY
Service: ANY
Action: DENY
Here is how your updated firewall settings should look:
Rule Name
Source
Destination
Service
Action
DNS Rule
192.168.0.1/24
ANY
DNS
PERMIT
HTTPS Outbound
192.168.0.1/24
ANY
HTTPS
PERMIT
Management
ANY
192.168.0.1/24
SSH
PERMIT
HTTPS Inbound
ANY
192.168.0.1/24
HTTPS
DENY
HTTP Inbound
ANY
192.168.0.1/24
HTTP
DENY
General Outbound
192.168.0.1/24
ANY
ANY
PERMIT
Block All
ANY
ANY
ANY
DENY
These settings ensure that:
Internal devices can access DNS and HTTPS services externally.
Management access via SSH is permitted.
Inbound HTTP and HTTPS traffic is denied unless otherwise specified.
General outbound traffic is allowed.
All other traffic is blocked by default, ensuring a secure environment.
Make sure to save the settings after making these adjustments.
NEW QUESTION # 50
SIMULATION
A network technician was recently onboarded to a company. A manager has tasked the technician with documenting the network and has provided the technician With partial information from previous documentation.
Instructions:
Click on each switch to perform a network discovery by entering commands into the terminal. Fill in the missing information using drop-down menus provided.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the Explanation for detailed information on this simulation
Explanation:
(Note: Ips will be change on each simulation task, so we have given example answer for the understanding) To perform a network discovery by entering commands into the terminal, you can use the following steps:
Click on each switch to open its terminal window.
Enter the command show ip interface brief to display the IP addresses and statuses of the switch interfaces.
Enter the command show vlan brief to display the VLAN configurations and assignments of the switch interfaces.
Enter the command show cdp neighbors to display the information about the neighboring devices that are connected to the switch.
Fill in the missing information in the diagram using the drop-down menus provided.
Here is an example of how to fill in the missing information for Core Switch 1:
The IP address of Core Switch 1 is 192.168.1.1.
The VLAN configuration of Core Switch 1 is VLAN 1: 192.168.1.0/24, VLAN 2: 192.168.2.0/24, VLAN 3: 192.168.3.0/24.
The neighboring devices of Core Switch 1 are Access Switch 1 and Access Switch 2.
The interfaces that connect Core Switch 1 to Access Switch 1 are GigabitEthernet0/1 and GigabitEthernet0/2.
The interfaces that connect Core Switch 1 to Access Switch 2 are GigabitEthernet0/3 and GigabitEthernet0/4.
You can use the same steps to fill in the missing information for Access Switch 1 and Access Switch 2.
NEW QUESTION # 51
Which of the following most likely requires the use of subinterfaces?
- A. A router with only one available LAN port
- B. A switch using Spanning Tree Protocol
- C. A firewall performing deep packet inspection
- D. A hub utilizing jumbo frames
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Introduction to Subinterfaces:
* Subinterfaces are logical interfaces created on a single physical interface. They are used to enable a router to support multiple networks on a single physical interface.
* Use Case for Subinterfaces:
* Subinterfaces are commonly used in scenarios where VLANs are implemented. A router with a single physical LAN port can be configured with multiple subinterfaces, each associated with a different VLAN.
* This setup allows the router to route traffic between different VLANs.
* Example Configuration:
* Consider a router with a single physical interface GigabitEthernet0/0 and two VLANs, 10 and 20.
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.10
encapsulation dot1Q 10
ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.20
encapsulation dot1Q 20
ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
* The encapsulation dot1Q command specifies the VLAN ID.
* Explanation of the Options:
* A. A router with only one available LAN port: This is correct. Subinterfaces allow a single physical interface to manage multiple networks, making it essential for routers with limited physical interfaces.
* B. A firewall performing deep packet inspection: Firewalls can use subinterfaces, but it is not a requirement for deep packet inspection.
* C. A hub utilizing jumbo frames: Hubs do not use subinterfaces as they operate at Layer 1 and
* do not manage IP addressing.
* D. A switch using Spanning Tree Protocol: STP is a protocol for preventing loops in a network and does not require subinterfaces.
* Conclusion:
* Subinterfaces provide a practical solution for routing between multiple VLANs on a router with limited physical interfaces. They allow network administrators to optimize the use of available hardware resources efficiently.
References:
* CompTIA Network+ guide detailing VLAN configurations and the use of subinterfaces (see page Ref 9†Basic Configuration Commands).
NEW QUESTION # 52
A network administrator is connecting two Layer 2 switches in a network. These switches must transfer data in multiple networks. Which of the following would fulfill this requirement?
- A. Jumbo frames
- B. Link aggregation
- C. Native VLAN
- D. 802.1Q tagging
Answer: D
Explanation:
802.1Q tagging, also known as VLAN tagging, is used to identify VLANs on a trunk link between switches. This allows the switches to transfer data for multiple VLANs (or networks) over a single physical connection. This method ensures that traffic from different VLANs is properly separated and managed across the network.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.
NEW QUESTION # 53
SIMULATION
Users are unable to access files on their department share located on flle_server 2. The network administrator has been tasked with validating routing between networks hosting workstation A and file server 2.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each router to review output, identity any Issues, and configure the appropriate solution If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of trie simulation, please click the reset All button;
Answer:
Explanation:
See the solution configuration below in Explanation.
NEW QUESTION # 54
Which of the following most likely determines the size of a rack for installation? (Select two).
- A. Cooling fan speed
- B. Server height
- C. Switch depth
- D. Hard drive size
- E. Outlet amperage
- F. KVM size
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Understanding Rack Size Determination:
* The size of a rack for installation is determined by the dimensions of the equipment to be housed in it, primarily focusing on the depth and height of the devices.
* Switch Depth:
* Depth of Equipment: The depth of network switches and other rack-mounted devices directly influences the depth of the rack. If the equipment is deeper, a deeper rack is required to accommodate it.
* Industry Standards: Most racks come in standard depths, but it is essential to match the depth of the rack to the deepest piece of equipment to ensure proper fit and airflow.
* Server Height:
* Height of Equipment: The height of servers and other devices is measured in rack units (U), where 1U equals 1.75 inches. The total height of all equipment determines the overall height requirement of the rack.
* Rack Units: A rack's height is typically described in terms of the number of rack units it can accommodate, such as 42U, 48U, etc.
* Why Other Options are Less Relevant:
* KVM Size: While important for management, KVM (Keyboard, Video, Mouse) switches do not typically determine rack size.
* Hard Drive Size: Individual hard drives are installed within servers or storage devices, not directly influencing rack dimensions.
* Cooling Fan Speed: Fan speed affects cooling but not the physical size of the rack.
* Outlet Amperage: Power requirements do not determine rack dimensions but rather the electrical infrastructure supporting the rack.
References:
* CompTIA Network+ study materials on rack installation and equipment sizing.
NEW QUESTION # 55
Before using a guest network, an administrator requires users to accept the terms of use Which of the following is the best way to accomplish this goal?
- A. Captive portal
- B. WPA2 encryption
- C. Pre-shared key
- D. Autonomous access point
Answer: A
Explanation:
A captive portal is a web page that users must view and interact with before being granted access to a network.
It is commonly used in guest networks to enforce terms of use agreements. When a user connects to the network, they are redirected to this portal where they must accept the terms of use before proceeding. This method ensures that users are aware of and agree to the network's policies, making it the best choice for this scenario. References: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.
NEW QUESTION # 56
A network technician needs to resolve some issues with a customer's SOHO network. The customer reports that some of the PCs are not connecting to the network, while others appear to be working as intended.
INSTRUCTIONS
Troubleshoot all the network components.
Review the cable test results first, then diagnose by clicking on the appropriate PC, server, and Layer 2 switch.
Identify any components with a problem and recommend a solution to correct each problem.
If at any time you would like to bring back
the initial state of the simulation, please
click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the answer and solution below:
NEW QUESTION # 57
Which of the following is created to illustrate the effectiveness of wireless networking coverage in a building?
- A. Heat map
- B. Service-level agreement
- C. Logical diagram
- D. Layer 3 network diagram
Answer: A
Explanation:
Definition of Heat Maps:
A heat map is a graphical representation of data where individual values are represented by colors. In the context of wireless networking, a heat map shows the wireless signal strength in different areas of a building.
Purpose of a Heat Map:
Heat maps are used to illustrate the effectiveness of wireless networking coverage, identify dead zones, and optimize the placement of access points (APs) to ensure adequate coverage and performance.
Comparison with Other Options:
Logical Diagram: Represents the logical connections and relationships within the network.
Layer 3 Network Diagram: Focuses on the routing and IP addressing within the network.
Service-Level Agreement (SLA): A contract that specifies the expected service levels between a service provider and a customer.
Creation and Use:
Heat maps are created using specialized software or tools that measure wireless signal strength throughout the building. The data collected is then used to generate a visual map, guiding network administrators in optimizing wireless coverage.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ certification materials and wireless network planning guides.
NEW QUESTION # 58
A VoIP phone is plugged in to a port but cannot receive calls. Which of the following needs to be done on the port to address the issue?
- A. Tag the traffic to voice VLAN.
- B. Disable VLANs.
- C. Configure the native VLAN.
- D. Trunk all VLANs on the port.
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Understanding VoIP and VLANs:
* VoIP (Voice over IP) phones often use VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) to separate voice traffic from data traffic for improved performance and security.
* Tagging Traffic to Voice VLAN:
* Voice VLAN Configuration:The port on the switch needs to be configured to tag traffic for the specific voice VLAN. This ensures that voice packets are prioritized and handled correctly.
* VLAN Tagging:VLAN tagging allows the switch to identify and separate voice traffic from other types of traffic on the network, reducing latency and jitter for VoIP communications.
* Comparison with Other Options:
* Trunk all VLANs on the port:Trunking all VLANs is typically used for links between switches, not for individual device ports.
* Configure the native VLAN:The native VLAN is for untagged traffic and does not address the need for separating and prioritizing voice traffic.
* Disable VLANs:Disabling VLANs would mix voice and data traffic, leading to potential performance issues and lack of traffic separation.
* Implementation:
* Configure the switch port connected to the VoIP phone to tag the traffic for the designated voice VLAN, ensuring proper network segmentation and quality of service.
References:
* CompTIA Network+ study materials on VLAN configuration and VoIP implementation.
NEW QUESTION # 59
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