156-215.81 Exam Dumps Free Test Engine Verified By Checkpoint Certified Security Administrator Certified Experts Use Real CheckPoint Achieve the 156-215.81 Dumps - 100% Exam Passing Guarantee The CheckPoint 156-215.81 exam, also known as the Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81 exam, is a certification program designed for IT professionals who want to validate their skills and knowledge [...]

156-215.81 Exam Dumps Free Test Engine Verified By Checkpoint Certified Security Administrator Certified Experts [Q127-Q150]

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156-215.81 Exam Dumps Free Test Engine Verified By Checkpoint Certified Security Administrator Certified Experts

Use Real CheckPoint Achieve the 156-215.81 Dumps - 100% Exam Passing Guarantee


The CheckPoint 156-215.81 exam, also known as the Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81 exam, is a certification program designed for IT professionals who want to validate their skills and knowledge in managing and maintaining Check Point Security Gateway and Management Software Blades systems. The exam covers topics such as deployment of Check Point Security Gateway and Management Software Blades, configuring security policies, managing user access, and troubleshooting common network issues. Passing the exam demonstrates that an individual has the skills and knowledge required to manage Check Point Security Gateway and Management Software Blades systems and ensure the security of an organization's network and data.


The Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81 exam is designed for experienced security professionals who are responsible for managing, configuring, and maintaining Check Point Security solutions. The exam is focused on testing the candidate's knowledge of Check Point's network security principles, as well as their ability to deploy and manage Check Point security solutions.

 

NEW QUESTION # 127
Which software blade enables Access Control policies to accept, drop, or limit web site access based on user, group, and/or machine?

  • A. Application Control
  • B. Identity Awareness
  • C. Threat Emulation
  • D. Data Awareness

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 128
Choose the correct statement regarding Implicit Rules.

  • A. You can directly edit the Implicit rules by double-clicking on a specific Implicit rule.
  • B. You can edit the Implicit rules but only if requested by Check Point support personnel.
  • C. To edit the Implicit rules you go to: Launch Button > Policy > Global Properties > Firewall.
  • D. Implied rules are fixed rules that you cannot change.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 129
Which type of attack can a firewall NOT prevent?

  • A. Buffer Overflow
  • B. SQL Injection
  • C. SYN Flood
  • D. Network Bandwidth Saturation

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 130
Phase 1 of the two-phase negotiation process conducted by IKE operates in ______ mode.

  • A. Quick
  • B. Main
  • C. Authentication
  • D. High Alert

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 131
Fill in the blanks: A Check Point software license consists of a _______ and _______ .

  • A. Signature; software blade
  • B. Software blade; software container
  • C. Software package; signature
  • D. Software container; software package

Answer: B

Explanation:
Check Point's licensing is designed to be scalable and modular. To this end, Check Point offers both predefined packages as well as the ability to custom build a solution tailored to the needs of the Network Administrator. This is accomplished by the use of the following license components:


NEW QUESTION # 132
What action can be performed from SmartUpdate R77?

  • A. upgrade_export
  • B. fw stat -1
  • C. remote_uninstall_verifier
  • D. cpinfo

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 133
Which command is used to obtain the configuration lock in Gaia?

  • A. Lock database user
  • B. Unlock database lock
  • C. Unlock database override
  • D. Lock database override

Answer: D

Explanation:
Obtaining a Configuration Lock


NEW QUESTION # 134
Where does the security administrator activate Identity Awareness within SmartDashboard?

  • A. Policy > Global Properties > Identity Awareness
  • B. Gateway Object > General Properties
  • C. LDAP Server Object > General Properties
  • D. Security Management Server > Identity Awareness

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 135
How is communication between different Check Point components secured in R81? As with all questions, select the best answer.

  • A. By using ICA
  • B. By using SIC
  • C. By using IPSEC
  • D. By using 3DES

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 136
You are conducting a security audit. While reviewing configuration files and logs, you notice logs accepting POP3 traffic, but you do not see a rule allowing POP3 traffic in the Rule Base.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?

  • A. POP3 is one of 3 services (POP3, IMAP, and SMTP) accepted by the default mail object in R77.
  • B. POP3 is accepted in Global Properties.
  • C. The POP3 rule is disabled.
  • D. The POP3 rule is hidden.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 137
You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN with one of your firm's business partners. Which SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your suspicious?

  • A. SmartUpdate
  • B. SmartView Tracker
  • C. SmartView Status
  • D. SmartDashboard

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 138
How do you manage Gaia?

  • A. Through CLI, WebUI, and SmartDashboard
  • B. Through CLI and WebUI
  • C. Through CLI only
  • D. Through SmartDashboard only

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 139
Jennifer McHanry is CEO of ACME. She recently bought her own personal iPad. She wants use her iPad to access the internal Finance Web server. Because the iPad is not a member of the Active Directory domain, she cannot identify seamlessly with AD Query. However, she can enter her AD credentials in the Captive Portal and then get the same access as on her office computer. Her access to resources is based on rules in the R77 Firewall Rule Base.
To make this scenario work, the IT administrator must:
1) Enable Identity Awareness on a gateway and select Captive Portal as one of the Identity Sources.
2) In the Portal Settings window in the User Access section, make sure that Name and password login is selected.
3) Create a new rule in the Firewall Rule Base to let Jennifer McHanry access network destinations. Select accept as the Action.
4) Install policy.
Ms McHanry tries to access the resource but is unable.
What should she do?

  • A. Have the security administrator reboot the firewall.
  • B. Install the Identity Awareness agent on her iPad.
  • C. Have the security administrator select Any for the Machines tab in the appropriate Access Role.
  • D. Have the security administrator select the Action field of the Firewall Rule "Redirect HTTP connections to an authentication (captive) portal".

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 140
A security zone is a group of one or more network interfaces from different centrally managed gateways. What is considered part of the zone?

  • A. The local directly connected subnet defined by the subnet IP and subnet mask.
  • B. The zone is based on the network topology and determined according to where the interface leads to.
  • C. Security Zones are not supported by Check Point firewalls.
  • D. The firewall rule can be configured to include one or more subnets in a zone.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 141
In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

  • A. Accounting
  • B. Accounting/Extended
  • C. Accounting/Suppression
  • D. Suppression

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 142
Which part of SmartConsole allows administrators to add, edit delete, and clone objects?

  • A. Object Explorer
  • B. Object Editor
  • C. Object Navigator
  • D. Object Browser

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 143
If the Active Security Management Server fails or if it becomes necessary to change the Active to Standby, the following steps must be taken to prevent data loss. Providing the Active Security Management Server is responsible, which of these steps should NOT be performed:

  • A. Rename the hostname of the Standby member to match exactly the hostname of the Active member.
  • B. Change the Active Security Management Server to Standby.
  • C. Change the Standby Security Management Server to Active.
  • D. Manually synchronize the Active and Standby Security Management Servers.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 144
In which deployment is the security management server and Security Gateway installed on the same appliance?

  • A. Bridge Mode
  • B. Remote
  • C. Standalone
  • D. Distributed

Answer: C

Explanation:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=BFNnBKQz5HA


NEW QUESTION # 145
Which of the following is NOT a back up method?

  • A. Save backup
  • B. Migrate
  • C. snapshot
  • D. System backup

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 146
Which statement describes what Identity Sharing is in Identity Awareness?

  • A. Users can share identities with other users
  • B. Administrators can share identifies with other administrators
  • C. Security Gateways can acquire and share identities with other Security Gateways
  • D. Management servers can acquire and share identities with Security Gateways

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 147
Which of the completed statements is NOT true? The WebUI can be used to manage user accounts and:

  • A. add users to your Gaia system.
  • B. assign user rights to their home directory in the Security Management Server
  • C. assign privileges to users.
  • D. edit the home directory of the user.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 148
Fill in the blank: The ________ feature allows administrators to share a policy with other policy packages.

  • A. Concurrent policies
  • B. Shared policies
  • C. Shared policy packages
  • D. Concurrent policy packages

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 149
Using AD Query, the security gateway connections to the Active Directory Domain Controllers using what protocol?

  • A. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
  • B. Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI)
  • C. Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)
  • D. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

Answer: A

Explanation:
AD Query (ADQ) is a clientless identity acquisition method that extracts user and computer identity information from the Active Directory Security Event Logs12. It is based on Active Directory integration and allows the Security Gateway to correlate Active Directory Users and machines to IP addresses in a method that is completely transparent to the user1. The Active Directory protocols provide directory services for the centralized storage of identity and account information, as well as storage for other forms of data such as group policies and printer location information3. The Active Directory protocols are specified in [LDAP], [MS-ADTS], [MS-SRPL], [MS-DRSR], [MS-SNTP], [MS-LSAD], [MS-LSAT], [MS-DSSP], [MS-SAMR], [MS-SAMS], [MS-WSDS], [WFXR], [WSENUM], [MS-WSTIM], [MS-ADDM], [MS-WSPELD], and [MS-ADCAP]3.


NEW QUESTION # 150
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The CheckPoint 156-215.81 exam is designed to test the knowledge and skills of security professionals in configuring Check Point Security Gateway and Management Software Blades. This certification is aimed at security administrators who are responsible for managing small to medium-sized networks using Check Point security solutions. The exam covers a wide range of topics, including network security, deployment of security gateways, managing security policies, and troubleshooting.

 

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