[Oct 18, 2025] Verified AAPC-CPC dumps and 152 unique questions
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NEW QUESTION # 69
A patient tests positive for coronavirus (SARS-CoV-2) and bronchitis after presenting with a cough. What diagnosis code(s) should be reported?
- A. J40,B97.29, Z20.828
- B. U07.1,J40, Z20.828
- C. U07.1,J40
- D. 140, 897.29, R05.9
Answer: C
Explanation:
The underlying condition should always be first listed, which in this case would be the SARS- COV-2 infection (U07.1). The description of the code then prompts the biller to list the manifestations, which would be the unspecified bronchitis 040). In answer A. cough would not be coded as a symptom because the patients illness is confirmed. Answers C and D, which include a suspected exposure code, can also be eliminated because this code is used only when the existence ofthe illness in the patient is unknown or negative.
NEW QUESTION # 70
Which is NOT a violation of Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)?
- A. An office does not perform a risk assessment of electronic health information.
- B. An encrypted laptop is stolen from a physician,s vehicle.
- C. A hospital with a multilayered cybersecurity defense experiences a data breach by acybercriminal.
- D. An employee drops off patient records on a physician,s porch.
Answer: C
Explanation:
HIPAA is in place to reduce the level of risk associated with a potential violation and/or breach. In answer C, even though a breach has occurred, the hospital has appropriate preventative measures in place and is not in violation of HIPAA. Leaving a laptop in an unattended vehicle or medical records outside is high-risk behavior that gives opportunity for an unauthorized person to access protected health information (PHI) and/or electronic protected health. In answer D, a medical practice is required to perform a risk analysis to PHI and/or ePHI and recti$ any failures within a timely manner.
NEW QUESTION # 71
An obstetrical patient carrying twins is seen. The physician performs a fetal non stress test on each fetus. How should the CPT code(s) be reported?
- A. 59025-76
- B. 59025, 59025-59
- C. 59025-22
- D. 0
Answer: B
Explanation:
Modifier 76 is used to identify a repeated procedure, but the test was performed on a separate fetus. Modifier 22 indicates increased procedural services: however, the services were not increased. Rather, a separate, identifiable test was rendered, and the modifier 59 would therefore apply to the second fetal nonstress test.
NEW QUESTION # 72
Which procedure uses a thin tube to examine the abdominal organs through a small incision in the belly?
- A. Laparoscopy
- B. Laparotomy
- C. Endoscopy
- D. Gastroscopy
Answer: A
Explanation:
A gastroscopy is a procedure that uses an endoscope to examine the stomach and some parts of the intestinal tract An endoscopy uses a thin tube through a natural opening in the body to examine the digestive tract. A laparotomy is a large incision in the belly to gain access into the abdominal cavity.
NEW QUESTION # 73
A physician provides a GIPO 39-weeks twin gestational patient with antepartum care, delivery, and postpartum care. Baby A was delivered vaginally without complications, and Baby B was delivered by Cesarean due to fetal tachycardi a. Assign the correct ICD-IO-CM and CPT codes.
- A. 59410, Z37.2 and 59510-51, 076, Z37.2
- B. 59510, 076, Z3A39, Z37.o and 59409-51, Z3A39, Z37.o
- C. 59400, Z37.o and 59510-51, 036.8332, Z37.o
- D. 59409, Z3A.39, Z37.o and 59510-51, 076, Z3A39, Z37.o
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Cesarean delivery (59510) would be sequenced first because this code has the highest RVU and would include the antepartum and postpartum care. The vaginal delivery by itself (59409), without antepartum and postpartum care, would be reported secondary because the charges for the antepartum and postpartum care of the mother have already been included in the Cesarean delivery code.
NEW QUESTION # 74
Code the following procedure note:
A 45-year-old female was referred for a urodynamics study due to complaints of bladder pain and weak urination. The provider places a rectal catheter simultaneously with a urethral catheter and begins to fill the bladder with water.
Using calibrated equipment, cytometry was done with a medium fill rate of 40 cc/ minute. A strong desire to void occurred at 84 cc. and the patient is instructed to void. The provider determines that the maximum urinary flow rate is 12 cc per second with a voiding time of 45 seconds and a voided volume of 102 cc. She voided with a sustained detrusor pressure. An abdominal pressure measurement was also taken, indicating no urinary leaking with abdominal straining. EMG patches were placed on the anal sphincter and found to be elevated with increased intra- abdominal pressure. All catheters and EMG patches were removed, and the procedure was completed without complications. A report will be forwarded to the referring provider, who will provide the interpretation of the results to the patient.
- A. 51726-TC, 51784-59-TC, 51797-59-TC, 51741-59-TC
- B. 51726-TC, 51784-51-TC, 51797-51-TC
- C. 51728-TC, 51784-TC, 51797-TC
- D. 51728-TC, 51784-TC, 51797-TC, 51741-TC
Answer: D
Explanation:
A urodynamics study is a diagnostic test to evaluate the function of the bladder. When performed using calibrated equipment, it becomes known as a complex cystometrogram (51726-
51729). In CPT code 51728, a complex cystometrogram is performed in conjunction with voiding pressure studies. In the provider's documentation, the bladder is filled with water, and voiding times and volume are recorded, thus fulfilling the requirements for this code. CPT code 51726 in answers A and B only describe a complex cystometrogram without the voiding pressure studies.
Electromyography (EMG) studies were performed without a needle to evaluate pelvic floor activity and are represented by 51784. An intraabdominal voiding pressure study (51797) can be inferred in that the provider had earlier inserted a rectal catheter and, after instructing the patient to cough, obtained an abdominal pressure measurement. A complex urinary flow study (51741) was performed in obtaining the maximum urinary flow rate through calibrated equipment. This procedure is missing in answers B and C. Modifier TC (indicating only a technical component) is amended on all the procedures because the provider is not interpreting the results to the patient.
Modifiers 51 and/or 59 is not amended on any procedure (A and B) because these are routinely billed together.
NEW QUESTION # 75
An established female patient presents to a video conference with her internist with complaints of a nonproductive cough. She receives 15 minutes of counseling about the symptoms of COVID-19 and is directed to an unaffiliated testing site. What CPT and ICD-IO-CM codes should be reported?
- A. 99213-95, R05.9, Z20.828
- B. 99442, R05.9
- C. 99442, R05.9, Z20.828
- D. 99213-95, R05.9
Answer: D
Explanation:
When coding a telehealth encounter for an outpatient practice that occurs over audio-video technology (e.g. Skype), the appropriate office visit E/M would be reported with modifier 95. The patient must initiate the telehealth encounter. Although similar, CPT code 99442 is billed when a patient initiates communication with a provider through an online patient portal. ICD-IO-CM Z20.828 is reported only when a patient does not exhibit any symptoms of a disease the patient is suspected to have been exposed to.
NEW QUESTION # 76
CPT code 99135 is an example of a qualifying circumstance.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: B
Explanation:
The statement is true. When it comes to reporting anesthesia services, qualifying circumstances are factors that put a patient at an unusually high health risk. A qualifring circumstance is reported with CPT codes 99100-99140, which are listed separately, in addition to the primary anesthesia code. If reporting one of these add-on codes, documentation must be submitted to support the necessity of such services.
NEW QUESTION # 77
Which of the four chambers in the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the body through the vena cava?
- A. Right atrium
- B. Left ventricle
- C. Right ventricle
- D. Left atrium
Answer: A
Explanation:
After receiving deoxygenated blood from the body through the vena cava, the right atrium pumps blood into the right ventricle. The right ventricle sends the blood to the lungs to be oxygenated. The left atrium receives blood from the lungs through the pulmonary veins and pumps it into the left ventricle via the mitral valve. The left ventricle then distributes oxygenated blood to tissues throughout the body.
NEW QUESTION # 78
ICD-IO-CM codes R50.9, R05.9, R53.81, and 102.9 are all symptoms ofJ10.00.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: B
Explanation:
The statement is true. In general, R codes are descriptive of a patient's signs and symptoms.
ICD-IO-CM crosswalk for an unspecified sore throat is 102.9 (acute pharyngitis) and is also considered a symptom of the influenza and pneumonia. Being that there is a definitive diagnosis of an influenza, these symptoms would not be reported to an insurance carrier with Jl 0.00.
NEW QUESTION # 79
Which is NOT part of the upper respiratory tract?
- A. Pharynx
- B. Trachea
- C. Larynx
- D. Nasal cavity
Answer: B
Explanation:
The upper respiratory tract consists of the nose, nasal cavity, pharynx, and larynx. The lower respiratory tract includes the trachea, primary bronchi, lungs, and the bronchioles and alveoli within the lungs.
NEW QUESTION # 80
A new, 29-year-old female patient is seen for a preventative visit and receives counseling that totals 30 minutes about contraceptive management. How would the provider code the CPT code(s) for this visit?
- A. 99385, 99402-25
- B. 0
- C. 99385, 99203-25
- D. 99385, 99417, 99417
Answer: B
Explanation:
If 99402 is part of a more complex service, it would not be separately identifiable, thus eliminating answer A Because 99385 includes counseling/anticipatory guidance/risk factor reduction interventions, the additional 30 minutes that the provider spent discussing contraceptives would not be considered a significant, separately identifiable E/M service, eliminating answer B. Last, because time is not a factor when selecting a preventative service,
99417 reflected in answer C, indicating a prolonged outpatient E/M service totaling 30 minutes would not apply.
NEW QUESTION # 81
A sternal closure using sutures is considered inclusive to CPT 33255 and should not be reported separately.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: B
Explanation:
The statement is true. Regardless of how a sternal closure is performed, it would be considered integral to this, and any other open cardiac procedure, when a sternal approach is used as the method of exposure. If a sternal closure were performed as the only procedure to repair an injury, the closure would then be reported.
NEW QUESTION # 82
Assign the appropriate CPT codes for the following surgical note: A 15-year-old patient is being treated for obstructive sleep apnea and adenoid tissue hypertrophy. After being placed under general anesthesia, a dental mirror is placed in the oropharynx to allow visualization of the nasopharynx. Suction electrocautery is used to remove the adenoid tissue that regrew after the initial adenoidectomy. Attention is then turned to the tonsils. The plane of tissue between the tonsillar capsule and the underlying muscles are cauterized, and the tonsils are removed. Bleeding is controlled by silver nitrate and gauze packing. Procedure is completed without complications, and patient is discharged to recovery.
- A. 42826, 42836-51, 135.2, G47.33
- B. 42999, 647.33, 135.2
- C. 42826, 42831-59, 135.2, G47.33
- D. 42821, G47.33, 135.2
Answer: D
Explanation:
An adenoidectomy and a tonsillectomy were performed in this surgical encounter (the root word -ectomy literally means the surgical removal of an anatomical structure). The adenoidectomy was done first and, if coded alone, would fall under one of Evo categories: primary (CPT 42830-
42831) or secondary (CPT 42835-42836). A primary adenoidectomy refers to the initial removal of the adenoid, whereas a secondary adenoidectomy occurs when adenoid tissue that was once removed has grown back. Because the documentation states that "the adenoid tissue ... regrew after the initial adenoidectomy," a coder can infer that this procedure is secondary. However, distinguishing betvveen the two procedures is not necessary when done in conjunction with a tonsillectomy because the procedures are bundled into two nonspecific CPT codes (42820 and
42821). Billing for an adenoidectomy and a tonsillectomy separately, as shown in answers A and C, is considered unbundling and is not allowed under the Correct Coding Initiative (CCI) edits.
Regarding the sequencing of the diagnoses, ICD-IO-CM guidelines state that when V,vo conditions meet the definition for principal diagnosis, either can be sequenced first In this scenario, J 35.2 or G47.33 could have been first listed because the procedures were to resolve both conditions in the same encounter.
NEW QUESTION # 83
What is the difference between presumptive and definitive testing?
- A. Presumptive testing confirms the presence of a drug class; definitive testing identifies thequantity or presence of a drug.
- B. Presumptive testing requires additional observation time; definitive testing requires ablood draw.
- C. Presumptive testing assumes a diagnosis; definitive testing confirms a diagnosis.
- D. Presumptive testing is based on exhibited signs and/or symptoms; definitive testing isbased on lab results.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A presumptive test reports whether the patient is positive or negative for a specific drug. A definitive test would analyze which specific agent and/or how much of that agent is in the patients' system.
NEW QUESTION # 84
A 15-year-old male patient is seen in the emergency department due to a dislocated left elbow, caused by a fall from his skateboard. The physician performs a comprehensive physical evaluation to check for other injuries before manually realigning the dislocation and placing a splint from the shoulder to wrist. The patient is informed to follow up in 4 weeks. Which CPT and ICD-IO-CM codes should the emergency department report?
- A. 99282-57, 24600-LT, S53.105A VOO.131A
- B. 24600-LT, 29105, S53.195AVOO.131A
- C. 24600-LT, S53.105A. VOO.131A
- D. 99283, 24600-LT, VOO.131A
Answer: A
Explanation:
An E/M is always billed when a patient is seen in the emergency department because it is unscheduled and urgent. In this case, the documentation encompasses a straightforward level of decision-making (one acute, uncomplicated injury, minimal or no data reviewed, superficial dressings that result in minimal risk or morbidity of the patient), which lead the coder to 99282.
Modifier 57 is appended to indicate that the decision for surgery was made just prior to the procedure and is not bundled. CPT coding crosswalk confirms that a closed treatment of a dislocated elbow is CPT code 24600. Application ofa splint is represented by CPT code 29105 but is not applicable when performed with a surgery to correct the dislocation. ICD-IO-CM crosswalk for dislocation of left elbow is S53.105A.
NEW QUESTION # 85
A patient opts to replace his semi-rigid penile prosthesis with a multicomponent, inflatable penile prosthesis. What CPT code(s) should the urologist report if this was completed in one encounter?
- A. 54405, 54415-51
- B. 0
- C. 54415, 54405-51
- D. 1
Answer: B
Explanation:
Penile prosthesis procedure codes are based on the type of prosthesis being used. In this scenario, a semi-rigid prosthesis is being replaced by a multicomponent inflatable one. Currently, there are no CPT codes that encompass the removal of one type of prosthesis and insertion of another type. The most common course of action might be to code the removal and insertion separately and amend a multi-procedural modifier on the secondary code. However, CPT 54415 indicates that the prosthesis removed was not replaced by another, which is an inaccurate description of services rendered. In this case, only the insertion (CPT 54405) should be reported because it has the highest RVU value.
NEW QUESTION # 86
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